According to John 1:33, before Jesus' baptism John

"did not know Him [Jesus]”

 

“And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the Holy Ghost.”

‭‭John‬ ‭1‬:‭33‬ ‭KJV‬‬

 

“Know” is sometimes rendered as “recognized” in some verses. Yet, the Greek word for know (eidó) is almost always rendered as “know.”

 

Yet, in Matthew 3:13-14 John recognized Jesus before he baptized Him and said, "l have need to be baptized by You."

 

“Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?”

‭‭Matthew‬ ‭3‬:‭13‬-‭14‬ ‭KJV‬‬

 

These two passages may seem contradictory. However, two plausible explanations can be given:

 

1. John may have known Jesus before His baptism only by reputation, not by recognition.

 

2. He may have known Jesus only by personal acquaintance, but not by Divine manifestation. After all, Jesus and John were relatives (Luke 1:36), even though they were reared in different places (Luke 1:80; 2:51). However, even though John may have had some previous family contact with Jesus, He had never known Jesus as He was revealed at His baptism when the Spirit descended on Him and the Father spoke from heaven (Matthew 3:16-17). This indicates that, up to His baptısm, no one really knew Jesus as He would then "be revealed to Israel" (John 1:31).

 

“And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water.”

‭‭John‬ ‭1‬:‭31‬ ‭KJV‬‬

 

“I did not recognize Him, but so that He might be manifested to Israel, I came baptizing in water.””

‭‭John‬ ‭1‬:‭31‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

 

John 1:31 makes the manifestation view more likely.